AvdyneAeroservice:.Element #3E 150-Questions

Element #3E....Good luck!...and remember you will be asked 10 questions from this pool.

(E3E1) Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes?
1. Junction and point contact.
2. Electrolytic and junction.
3. Electrolytic and point contact.
4. Vacuum and point contact.
(E3E2) What are the two primary classifications of Zener diodes?
1. Hot carrier and tunnel.
2. Varactor and rectifying.
3. Voltage regulator and voltage reference.
4. Forward and reversed biased.
(E3E3) What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?
1. A constant current under conditions of varying voltage.
2. A constant voltage under conditions of varying current.
3. A negative resistance region.
4. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage.
(E3E4) What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes?
1. 2.4 volts to 200 volts.
2. 1.2 volts to 7 volts.
3. 3 volts to 2000 volts.
4. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts.
(E3E5) What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?
1. A high forward resistance.
2. A very high PIV(peak inverse voltage).
3. A negative resistance region.
4. A high forward current rating.
(E3E6) What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?
1. Point contact diodes.
2. Zener diodes.
3. Tunnel diodes.
4. Junction diodes.
(E3E7) What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies?
1. A varactor diode.
2. A tunnel diode.
3. A silicon-controlled rectifier.
4. A Zener diode.
(E3E8) What is the principal characteristic of a varactor diode?
1. It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current.
2. Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage.
3. It has a negative resistance region.
4. It has a very high PIV(peak inverse voltage).
(E3E9) What is a common use of a varactor diode?
1. As a constant current source.
2. As a constant voltage source.
3. As a voltage controlled inductance.
4. As a voltage controlled capacitance.
(E3E10) What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?
1. As balanced inputs in SSB generation.
2. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit.
3. As a constant voltage reference in a power supply.
4. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors.
(E3E11) What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?
1. The peak inverse voltage(PIV).
2. The junction temperature.
3. The forward voltage.
4. The back EMF.
(E3E12) How are junction diodes rated?
1. Maximum forward current and capacitance.
2. Maximum reverse current and PIV(peak inverse voltage).
3. Maximum reverse current and capacitance.
4. Maximum forward current and PIV(peak inverse voltage).
(E3E13) What is a common use for point contact diodes?
1. As a constant current source.
2. As a constant voltage source.
3. As an RF detector.
4. As a high voltage rectifier.
(E3E14) What type of diode is made of a metal whisker touching a very small semiconductor die?
1. Zener diode.
2. Varactor diode.
3. Junction diode.
4. Point contact diode.
(E3E15) What is one common use for PIN diodes?
1. As a constant current source.
2. As a constant voltage source.
3. As an RF switch.
4. As a high voltage rectifier.
(E3E16) What special type of diode is often used in RF switches, attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices?
1. Tunnel diodes.
2. Varactor diodes.
3. PIN diodes.
4. Junction diodes.
(E3E17) What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?
1. Cathode, plate and grid.
2. Base, collector and emitter.
3. Gate, source and sink.
4. Input, output and ground.
(E3E18) What is the meaning of the term alpha with regard to bipolar transistors?
1. The change of collector current with respect to base current.
2. The change of base current with respect to collector current.
3. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current.
4. The change of collector current with respect to gate current.
(E3E19) What is the term used to express the ratio of change in DC collector current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor?
1. Gamma.
2. Epsilon.
3. Alpha.
4. Beta.
(E3E20) What is the meaning of the term beta with regard to bipolar transistors?
1. The change of collector current with respect to base current.
2. The change of base current with respect to emitter current.
3. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current.
4. The change in base current with respect to gate current.
(E3E21) What is the term used to express the ratio of change in the DC collector current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor?
1. Alpha.
2. Beta.
3. Gamma.
4. Delta.
(E3E22) What is the meaning of the term alpha cutoff frequency with regard to bipolar transistors?
1. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration.
2. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration.
3. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base configuration.
4. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common emitter configuration.
(E3E23) What is the term used to express that frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.707 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a bipolar transistor?
1. Comer frequency.
2. Alpha cutoff frequency.
3. Beta cutoff frequency.
4. Alpha rejection frequency.
(E3E24) What is the meaning of the term beta cutoff frequency with regard to a bipolar transistor?
1. That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.
2. That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.
3. That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.
4. That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreased to 0.707 of that obtainable at 1 kHz in a transistor.
(E3E25) What is the meaning of the term transition region with regard to a transistor?
1. An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
2. The area of maximum P-type charge.
3. The area of maximum N-type charge.
4. The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N- type material.
(E3E26) What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?
1. The collector current is at its maximum value.
2. The collector current is at its minimum value.
3. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value.
4. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value.
(E3E27) What does it mean for a transistor to be cut of?
1. There is no base current.
2. The transistor is at its Class A operating point.
3. There is no current between emitter and collector.
4. There is maximum current between emitter and collector.
(E3E28) What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?
1. Base 1, base 2, and emitter.
2. Gate, cathode, and anode.
3. Gate, base 1, and base 2.
4. Gate, source, and sink.
(E3E29) For best efficiency and stability, where on the load-line should a solid-state power amplifier be operated?
1. Just below the saturation point.
2. Just above the saturation point.
3. At the saturation point.
4. At 1.414 times the saturation point.
(E3E30) What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit both metallic and non-metallic characteristics?
1. Silicon and gold.
2. Silicon and germanium.
3. Galena and germanium.
4. Galena and bismuth.
(E3E31) What are the three terminals of an SCR?
1. Anode, cathode, and gate.
2. Gate, source, and sink.
3. Base, collector, and emitter.
4. Gate, base 1, and base 2.
(E3E32) What are the two stable operating conditions of an SCR?
1. Conducting and nonconducting.
2. Oscillating and quiescent.
3. Forward conducting and reverse conducting.
4. NPN conduction and PNP conduction.
(E3E33) When an SCR is in the triggered or on condition, its electrical characteristics are similar to what other solid-state
device (as measured between its cathode and anode)?
1. The junction diode.
2. The tunnel diode.
3. The hot-carrier diode.
4. The varactor diode.
(E3E34) Under what operating condition does an SCR exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier?
1. During a switching transition.
2. When it is used as a detector.
3. When it is gated "off'.
4. When it is gated "on".
(E3E35) What is the transistor called which is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?
1. TRIAC.
2. Bilateral SCR.
3. Unijunction transistor.
4. Field effect transistor.
(E3E36) What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?
1. Emitter, base 1, and base 2.
2. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2.
3. Base, emitter, and collector.
4. Gate, source, and sink.
(E3E37) What is the normal operating voltage and current for a light-emitting diode?
1. 60 volts and 20 mA.
2. 5 volts and 50 mA.
3. 1.7 volts and 20mA.
4. 0.7 volts and 60 mA.
(E3E38) What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?
1. Reverse bias.
2. Forward bias.
3. Zero bias.
4. Inductive bias.
(E3E39) What is the name of the semiconductor 1C that has a fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix?
1. RAM—Random-Access Memory.
2. ROM-Read-Only Memory.
3. Register.
4. Latch.
(E3E40) What colors are available in LEDs?
1. Yellow, blue, red, and brown.
2. Red, violet, yellow, and peach.
3. Violet, blue, orange, and red.
4. Red, green, orange, and yellow.
(E3E41) How can a neon lamp be used to check for the presence of RF?
1. A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF.
2. A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF.
3. A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low
  frequency (VLF) signal.
4. A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF.
(E3E42) What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone emission?
1. 6 kHz at-6 dB.
2. 2.1kHz at-6dB.
3. 500 Hz at-6 dB.
4. 15kHz at-6dB.
(E3E43) What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for a double-sideband phone emission?
1. 1 kHz at -6 dB.
2. 500 Hz at -6 dB.
3. 6 kHz at -6 dB.
4. 15kHz at -6 dB.
(E3E44) What is a crystal lattice filter?
1. A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals.
2. An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals.
3. A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz crystals.
4. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made
  using quartz crystals.
(E3E45) What technique can be used to construct low cost, high performance crystal lattice filters?
1. Splitting and tumbling.
2. Tumbling and grinding.
3. Etching and splitting.
4. Etching and grinding.
(E3E46) What determines the bandwidth and response shape in a crystal lattice filter?
1. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals.
2. The center frequency chosen for the filter.
3. The amplitude of the RF .stage preceding the filter.
4. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter.
(E3E47) What is an enhancement-mode FET?
1. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate.
2. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate.
3. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate
4. An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage.
(E3E48) What is a depletion-mode FET?
1. An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current flows with zero gate voltage.
2. An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage is zero.
3. An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage.
4. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate.
(E3E49) Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes?
1. The gate-protective Zener diode provides a voltage reference to provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage.
2. The gate-protective Zener diode protects the substrate from excessive voltages.
3. The gate-protective Zener diode keeps the gate voltage within specifications to prevent the device from overheating.
4. The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate insulation from being punctured by small static charges or excessive voltages.
(E3E50) What do the initials CMOS stand for?
1. Common mode oscillating system.
2. Complementary mica-oxide silicon.
3. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor.
4. Complementary metal-oxide substrate.
(E3E51) Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?
1. They are susceptible to damage from static charges.
2. They have fragile leads that may break off.
3. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that
  are susceptible to breakage.
4. They are light sensitive.
(E3E52) How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor?
1. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage.
2. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance.
3. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same.
4. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance.
(E3E53) What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
1. Gate 1, gate 2, drain.
2. Emitter, base, collector.
3. Emitter, base 1, base 2.
4. Gate, drain, source.
(E3E54) What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors?
1. N-channel and P-channel.
2. High power and low power.
3. MOSFET and GaAsFET.
4. Silicon FET and germanium FET.
(E3E55) What is an operational amplifier?
1. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose
  characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier unit.
2. A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier unit.
3. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated signals.
4. A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF amplifier.
(E3E56) What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp?
1. Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response.
2. Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response.
3. Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response.
4. Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response.
(E3E57) What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?
1. The external feedback network.
2. The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage.
3. The power supply voltage.
4. The PNP collector load.
(E3E58) What is meant by the term op-amp offset voltage?
1. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage.
2. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the following stage.
3. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of
  the op-amp in a closed-loop condition.
4. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition.
(E3E59) What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
1. 100 ohms.
2. 1000 ohms.
3. Very low.
4. Very high.
(E3E60) What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp?
1. Very low.
2. Very high.
3. 100 ohms.
4. 1000 ohms.
(E3E61) What is a phase-locked loop circuit?
1. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator.
2. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator.
3. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input.
4. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator.
(E3E62) What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop?
1. Wideband AF and RF power amplification.
2. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter.
3. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling.
4. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation.
(E3E63) A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled oscillator and a frequency standard. The difference between the two frequencies produces an error voltage that changes the voltage-controlled oscillator frequency. What is the name of the circuit?
1. A doubly balanced mixer.
2. A phase-locked loop.
3. A differential voltage amplifier.
4. A variable frequency oscillator.
(E3E64) What do the initials TTL stand for?
1. Resistor-transistor logic.
2. Transistor-transistor logic.
3. Diode-transistor logic.
4. Emitter-coupled logic.
(E3E65) What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits?
1. 12.00 volts.
2. 50.00 volts.
3. 5.00 volts.
4. 13.60 volts.
(E3E66) What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open?
1. A high logic state.
2. A low logic state.
3. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low logic states.
4. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored.
(E3E67) What is the range of input voltages considered to be a logic high input in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power supply?
1. 2.0 to 5.5 volts.
2. 1.5 to 3.0 volts.
3. 1.0 to 1.5 volts.
4. -5.0 to-2.0 volts.
(E3E68) What is the range of input voltages considered to be a logic low in a CMOS device operating with an 18-volt power supply?
1. -0.8 to 0.0 volts.
2. 0.0 to 5.4 volts.
3. 0.0 to 0.8 volts.
4. -0.8 to 0.4 volts.
(E3E69) Why do circuits containing TTL devices have several bypass capacitors per printed circuit board?
1. To prevent RFI to receivers.
2. To keep the switching noise within the circuit, thus eliminating RFI.
3. To filter out switching harmonics.
4. To prevent switching transients from appearing on the supply line.
(E3E70) What is a CMOS IC?
1. A chip with only P-channel transistors.
2. A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors.
3. A chip with only N-channel transistors.
4. A chip with only bipolar transistors.
(E3E71) What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices?
1. Small size.
2. Low current consumption.
3. Low cost.
4. Ease of circuit design.
(E3E72) Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?
1. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design.
2. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage.
3. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage.
4. Input signals are stronger.
(E3E73) Signal energy is coupled into a traveling-wave tube at:
1. Collector end of helix.
2. Anode end of the helix.
3. Cathode end of the helix.
4. Focusing coils.
(E3E74) Permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave tube (TWT) is intended to:
1. Provide a means of coupling.
2. Prevent the electron beam from spreading.
3. Prevent oscillations.
4. Prevent spurious oscillations.
(E3E75) Electromagnetic coils encase a traveling wave tube to:
1. Provide a means of coupling energy.
2. Prevent the electron beam from spreading.
3. Prevent oscillation.
4. Prevent spurious oscillation.
(E3E76) When a doped semiconductor crystal is formed against a metal conductor, what type of diode is created?
1. Schottky diode.
2. Tunnel diode.
3. Varactor diode.
4. Zener diode.
(E3E77) What type of diode contains no minority carriers in the junction region?
1. Tunnel diode.
2. Varactor diode.
3. Zener diode.
4. Hot-carrier diode.
(E3E78) Mounting an LED facing a photodiode cell in a tiny light-tight enclosure produces a:
1. Seven segment LED.
2. Opto-isolator.
3. Opto-interrupter.
4. Photonic device.
(E3E79) Most bipolar junction transistors have a __ doped and emitter region compared to the base and collector regions.
1. Heavily, thin.
2. Heavily, small.
3. Lightly, thin.
4. Lightly, small.
(E3E80) Most bipolar junction transistors have a doped and base region compared to the emitter and collector regions.
1. Heavily, thin.
2. Heavily, small.
3. Lightly, thin.
4. Lightly, small.
(E3E81) Most bipolar junction transistors have a doped and collector region compared to the base and emitter regions.
1. Heavily, large.
2. Heavily, small.
3. Lightly, thin.
4. Medium, large.
(E3E82) A common emitter amplifier has:
1. More current gain than common base or common collector.
2. More voltage gain than common base or common collector.
3. More power gain than common base or common collector.
4. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations.
(E3E83) A common base amplifier has:
1. More current gain than common emitter or common collector.
2. More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector.
3. More power gain than common emitter or common collector.
4. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations.
(E3E84) An emitter-follower amplifier has:
1. More current gain than common emitter or common base.
2. More voltage gain than common emitter or common base.
3. More power gain than common emitter or common base.
4. Lowest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations.
(E3E85) The JFET's is the ratio of drain-source voltage change to gate-source voltage change with drain current constant.
1. Amplification factor.
2. Dynamic drain resistance.
3. Transconductance.
4. Pinch-off voltage.
(E3E86) The JFET's is the ratio of drain-source voltage change to drain current change with the gate-source voltage constant.
1. Amplification factor.
2. Dynamic drain resistance.
3. Transconductance.
4. Pinch-off voltage.
(E3E87) The JFET's is the ratio of drain current change to gate-source voltage change with drain-source voltage constant.
1. Amplification factor.
2. Dynamic drain resistance.
3. Transconductance.
4. Pinch-off voltage.
(E3E88) When working with JFET's the following terms are used: amplification factor, dynamic drain resistance, and transconductance. Which of the following relationships is correct?
1. Dynamic drain resistance = transconductance / amplification factor.
2. Transconductance = dynamic drain resistance / amplification factor.
3. Amplification factor = dynamic drain resistance / transconductance.
4. Amplification factor = dynamic drain resistance * tranconductance.
(E3E89) What describes a diode junction that is forward biased?
1. It is a high impedance.
2. It conducts very little current.
3. It is a low impedance.
4. It is an open circuit.
(E3E90) What describes a diode junction that is reverse biased?
1. It is a short circuit.
2. It conducts a large current.
3. IIt is a low impedance.
4. It is a high impedance.
(E3E91) What conditions exist when an NPN transistor is operating as a Class A amplifier?
1. The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased.
2. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased.
3. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both reverse biased.
4. The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased.
(E3E92) What conditions exist when a transistor is operating in saturation?
1. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased.
2. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both reverse biased.
3. The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased.
4. The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased.
(E3E93) What voltage is required on a silicon NPN switching transistor's base-emitter junction to cause current between collector and emitter?
1. The base must be at least 0.4 volts positive with respect to the emitter.
2. The base must be at a negative voltage with respect to the emitter.
3. The base must be at least 0.7 volts positive with respect to the emitter.
4. The base must be at least 0.7 volts negative with respect to the emitter.
(E3E94) What voltage is required on a silicon PNP switching transistor's base-emitter junction to cause current between collector and emitter?
1. The base must be at least 0.7 volts negative with respect to the emitter.
2. The base must be at least 0.4 volts negative with respect to the emitter.
3. The base must be positive with respect to the emitter.
4. The base must be at least 0.4 volts positive with respect to the emitter.
(E3E95) What semiconductor device controls current between source and drain due to a variable width channel controlled by a voltage applied between gate and source.
1. A bipolar transistor (BIT).
2. A field-effect transistor (FET).
3. A gate-controlled diode.
4. A PNP transistor.
(E3E96) What are the operating modes for field-effect transistors?
1. Transition and depletion modes.
2. Enhancement and transition modes.
3. Transition and non-transition modes.
4. Depletion and enhancement modes.
(E3E97) What is an enhancement-mode FET?
1. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate.
2. An FET with a channel that allows a current between source and drain when the gate voltage is zero.
3. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate.
4. An FET without a channel; no current between source and drain with zero gate voltage.
(E3E98) What is a depletion-mode FET?
1. An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; there is current between source and drain when the gate voltage is zero.
2. An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage is zero.
3. An FET without a channel; there is no current from source to drain with zero gate voltage.
4. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate.
(E3E99) What is a silicon integrated circuit (IC)?
1. A complex semiconductor device containing within it all the circuit components interconnected on a single chip of silicon.
2. A large number of discrete components wired together on a silicon substrate.
3. Individual components integrated together on a printed wiring board.
4. A circuit of discrete individual silicon components.
(E3E100) What are the advantages of using an LED?
1. Low power consumption and long life.
2. High lumens per cm squared and low power consumption.
3. High lumens per cm squared and low voltage requirement.
4. A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source.
(E3E101) What determines the visible color radiated by an LED?
1. The color of a lens in an eyepiece.
2. The amount of voltage across the device.
3. The amount of current through the device.
4. The materials used to construct the device.
(E3E102) What level of input voltage is considered a logic low in a TTL device operating with a 5 volt power supply?
1. -2.0 to-5.5 volts.
2. 2.0 to 5.5 volts.
3. 0.0 to 0.8 volts.
4. -0.8 to 0.4 volts.
(E3E103) Where is the external feedback network connected to control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit?
1. From output to inverting input.
2. From output to non-inverting input.
3. Across the output.
4. Across the input.
(E3E104) What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly?
1. ROM-Read-Only Memory.
2. PROM-Programmable Read-Only Memory.
3. RAM-Random-Access Memory.
4. EPROM-Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory.
(E3E105) What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix?
1. ROM-Read-Only Memory.
2. PROM-Programmable Read-Only Memory.
3. PRAM-Programmable Random-Access Memory.
4. DRAM—Dynamic Random-Access Memory.
(E3E106) What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency) reception?
1. lkHzat-6dB.
2. 500 Hz at-6 dB.
3. 6 kHz at-6 dB.
4. 15kHzat-6dB.
(E3E107) The capacitance of a varactor as the bias is increased. Assume proper bias to use the diode as a varactor.
1. Increases, forward.
2. Increases, reverse.
3. Decreases, forward.
4. Decreases, reverse.
(E3E108) The screen grid was added to vacuum tubes to reduce ______ and draw space-charge electrons from the cathode through the control grid wires.
1. Mu.
2. Transconductance.
3. Plate-impedance values.
4. Grid-plate capacitance.
(E3E109) When working with tetrodes, as long as plate-voltage is greater than screen-grid voltage, what effect on plate current would be noticed if you doubled plate voltage?
1. Plate current would be decreased by a factor of 1/2.
2. Plate current would be increased by a factor of 2.
3. Plate current would barely increase.
4. Plate current would be increased by a factor equal to Mu.
(E3E110) Which of the following is not an advantage of using pentodes.
1. Usually requires no neutralization in high frequency circuits.
2. Higher Mu than triodes or tetrodes.
3. Higher secondary emission resulting in greater plate current.
4. Better shielding between plate and control grid.
(E3E111) Which of the following is not an advantage of gaseous tubes.
1. Little heat dissipation.
2. Carry relatively low currents.
3. High efficiency.
4. Relatively constant voltage-drop across them.
(E3E112) A pulse width modulator IC would most likely be found in which of the following:
1. Ringing choke power supply.
2. Solid-state DC to DC converter.
3. Crowbar protection circuit.
4. Shunt regulator with error-signal amp.
(E3E113) An 800 kHz crystal, calibrated at 40 degrees Celsius and having a temperature coefficient of-30 parts per million per degree Celsius, will resonate at what frequency when operated at 60 degrees Celsius?
1. 799.52kHz.
2. 799.40 kHz.
3. 800.60kHz.
4. 800.48 kHz.
(E3E114) An 800 kHz crystal, calibrated at 40 degrees Celsius and having a temperature coefficient of+30 parts per million per degree Celsius, will resonate at what frequency when operated at 60 degrees C.?
1. 799.52 kHz.
2. 799.40 kHz.
3. 800.60kHz.
4. 800.48 kHz.
(E3E115) Which of the following does not have a negative resistance region?
1. Dynatron.
2. Tunnel diode.
3. Unijunction transistor.
4. Schottky diode.
(E3E116) A phase-locked loop IC could be used in all of the following applications except:
1. Frequency-shift keying (FSK).
2. Horizontal sweep AFC.
3. Frequency synthesis.
4. Phase-shift oscillator.
(E3E117) Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high?
1. AND.
2. NAND.
3. NOR.
4. XOR.
(E3E118) Which of the following logic gates will provide an active low out when both inputs are active high?
1. AND.
2. NAND.
3. OR.
4. XNOR.
(E3E119) Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when any input is active high?
1. AND.
2. NAND.
3. OR.
4. NOR.
(E3E120) Which of the following logic gates will provide an active low out when any input is active high?
1. AND.
2. NAND.
3. OR.
4. NOR.
(E3E121) Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out only when all inputs are different?
1. OR.
2. NOR.
3. XOR.
4. XNOR.
(E3E122) Which of the following logic gates will provide an active low out only when all inputs are different?
1. OR.
2. NOR.
3. XOR.
4. XNOR.
(E3E123) Which of the following inputs to a D flip-flop are considered to be asynchronous?
1. D, CLK.
2. PRE, CLR.
3. D, PRE.
4. CLK, CLR.
(E3E124) Which of the following inputs to a J-K flip-flop are considered to be synchronous?
1. J, K.
2. PRE, CLR.
3. CLK, PRE.
4. Q, CLR.
(E3E125) An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the following except:
1. Accept data input into R-S inputs with CLK initiated.
2. Accept data input into PRE and CLR inputs without CLK being initiated.
3. Refuse to accept synchronous data if asynchronous data is being input at same time.
4. Operate in toggle mode with R-S inputs held constant and CLK initiated.
(E3E126) The toggle mode of operation, achieved by applying a string of CLK pulses, is a normal operation mode for which of the following?
1. D flip-flop.
2. R-S flip-flop.
3. J-K flip-flop.
4. Bistable Multivibrator.
(E3E127) How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct an 8 bit storage register?
1. 2.
2. 4.
3. 8.
4. 16.
(E3E128) How many J-K flip-flops would be required to construct a MOD 16 ripple counter?
1. 2.
2. 4.
3. 8.
4. 16.
(E3E129) How many D flip-flops would be required to construct a MOD 16 ring counter?
1. 2.
2. 4.
3. 8.
4. 16.
(E3E130) If an input CLK frequency of 160 kHz is applied to a four bit ripple counter capable of achieving full count before roll-over, what frequency can you expect to measure at the MSB output?
1. 10 kHz.
2. 20kHz.
3. 40kHz.
4. 320kHz.
(E3E131) If a CLK frequency of 160 kHz is applied to the Count-Up input pin of a BCD counting chip, what will be the frequency available at the Carry-Out pin of that same chip? (assume all other inputs are proper).
1. 10 kHz.
2. 16 kHz.
3. 160 kHz.
4. 320kHz.
(E3E132) Which of the following are contained in an LCD display?
1. Semi-conductor P-N junctions.
2. Light emitting diodes.
3. Photovoltaic material.
4. Nematic fluid.
(E3E133) Which of the following is not an analog to digital converter?
1. Digital-ramp ADC.
2. Successive approximation ADC.
3. Flash ADC.
4. R/2R ladder ADC.
(E3E134) A - NOTed OR, bubbled OR, or negative OR – gate performs the same logic function as which of the following gates?
1. AND.
2. NAND.
3. XOR.
4. XNOR.
(E3E135) A - NOTed AND, bubbled AND, or negative AND – gate performs the same logic function as which of the following gates?
1. OR.
2. NOR.
3. XOR.
4. XNOR.
(E3E136) Which of the following logic functions can not be duplicated when using a single IC containing quad 2-input NAND gates? (you can use all available gates contained in the one IC mentioned).
1. AND.
2. XOR.
3. OR.
4. NOR.
(E3E137) Which of the following logic functions would require the fewest number of NOR gates to duplicate?
1. AND.
2. NAND.
3. XOR.
4. XNOR.
(E3E138) Which of the following applications usually requires a parallel-to-serial conversion of data?
1. Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's RAM to its CPU.
2. Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's ROM to its CPU.
3. Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's RAM to its monitor.
4. Transfer a byte of data from a microcomputer's RAM to its ALU.
(E3E139) Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance in modern times for exchange of data from one computer to another?
1. ASCII code.
2. Baudot code.
3. Morse code.
4. Gray code.
(E3E140) Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated open-loop?
1. Comparator.
2. Non-inverting amp.
3. Inverting amp.
4. Active filter.
(E3E141) Slew rate of an op-amp means:
1. Output voltage change per nanosecond.
2. Output voltage change per microsecond.
3. Output voltage change per millisecond.
4. Output voltage change per second.
(E3E142) RF chokes are sometimes constructed of universal wound pies to:
1. Lower impedance to a relatively wide band of frequencies for which it was manufactured.
2. Increase impedance to a relatively narrow band of frequencies for which it was manufactured.
3. Increase the end-to-end distributed capacitance.
4. Decrease the end-to-end distributed capacitance.
(E3E143) Which of the following types of microphones is least likely to be used in broadcast applications?
1. Condenser microphone.
2. Crystal microphone.
3. Dynamic microphone.
4. Magnetic microphone.
(E3E144) How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus?
1. 8 memory cells.
2. 16 memory cells.
3. 32 memory cells.
4. 64 memory cells.
(E3E145) When referring to digital IC's, which of the following contains between 100 to 9999 gates?
1. MSI (medium-scale integration).
2. LSI (large-scale integration).
3. VLSI (very large-scale integration).
4. ULSI (ultra large-scale integration).
(E3E146) Which of the following devices acts as two SCR's connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and sharing a common gate?
1. JFET.
2. Dual-gate MOSFET.
3. DIAC.
4. TRIAC.
(E3E147) Which of the following devices is normally used to regulate the amount of AC current flowing to a load from approximately 0 degrees to no more than 180 degrees of the input signal?
1. DIAC.
2. SCR.
3. TRIAC.
4. Class A BJT amp.
(E3E148) Which of the following devices is normally used to regulate the amount of AC current flowing to a load from approximately 0 degrees to 360 degrees of the input signal?
1. DIAC.
2. SCR.
3. TRIAC.
4. Class B BJT amp.
(E3E149) Which of the following devices produces the least amount of noise when used as a part of a mixer stage in a superheterodyne receiver?
1. Bipolar-junction transistor.
2. Dual-gate MOSFET.
3. Duo-triode vacuum tube.
4. P-N junction diode.
(E3E150) Which of the following devices is used principally as VHF and UHF parasitic suppresses?
1. Ferrite bead.
2. Balun.
3. Autotransformer.
4. Swinging choke.

Turn off the volume if you don't want to hear the sound bites.